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I just got divorced and I am going to refinance my home and put it in my name, and buy "my ex-husband out of my home".....If we were to have sold the home to a private party, we would have had to pay sellers closing costs...If I am going to refinance and put it in my name, and give my husband his share of the equity....Isn't it fair that he pay at least 1/2 of the sellers closing costs, since he would have had to do that if we sold it to a private party. In addition, I just found out that because we refinanced 3 years ago, and signed a pre-payment penalty clause, that said if we refinance again, within 5 years, that we would have to pay a penalty..which is approx. $4000.00. (if we would have sold it to a private 3rd party, there would have not been a penalty, only to refinance.......So, he doesn't feel he should haev to apy any part of that penalty...but mostly I want to know if he should be made to pay at least 1/2 of sellers closing fees.
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